Fluid dyamics discussion - someone educate me.....

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Originally Posted By: Gary Allan
No correction, it shows the PSID across media with zero back pressure at volume.

Put a filer ..any filter at any volume with no restriction for an outlet ..and you'll see supply across the filter.

Those figures are only useful in comparison to each other. They don't mean squat in line/in process ..except perhaps in relief.


I've already addressed this above. Yes, I agree that that test was without the filter on an engine, and hence no "back pressure". But the fact remains that IF you could put that much flow through them (at that oil viscosity) that is the PSID you would see. If you used hot oil in that test instead of cold oil, then all those PSID curves would fall down sigificantly as thier PSIDs would decrease a bunch.

The graph does give someone an idea of just how much resistance the element can produce with higher flow volumes and with cold oil. I think what AC Delco was trying to show and sell was that their Ultragaurd filter was less restrictive which would help give better flow during cold stars - that's why they show the 34 deg F oil qualifier on the graph.
 
Quote:
I never claim anything like that - more grasping and twisting. The only time a filter would might be in bypass with hot oil is if the pump was HV and the engine was also free flowing. Remember the Subaru thread? If you put a filter with a 8-10 psi bypass valve on an engine that called for a 23 psi bypass filter and flowed 12 gpm, then you'd probably push that 8-10 psi filter into bypass quite often.


Well, as you clearly saw, the M1 had 10psid MORE than the K&N, right. Isn't that some baseline that can only go up to the bypass valve limit? In fact, since it's 10PSID MORE than the K&N ..this was "hot oil", btw ..and only at idle ..that would mean that it had to be MORE than 10PSID across the filter, right?

Now what would it be at 10gpm ..oh, that's right, it's been in bypass right off of idle ..while the K&N has been just 10PSID behind it.
 
Originally Posted By: SuperBusa
Originally Posted By: Gary Allan
Okay ..chop the chart off at a bypass level and amplify it for an engine that is at least 10X in relative resistance.


That graph is meant to show the restriction of the filtering media ... obviously the bypass valves in those filters is not operating. Maybe they used a filter model in each brand that didn't even have a built in bypass valve (ie, GM application).

Originally Posted By: Gary Allan
That chart is uses in process.


Say what ? ... "useless" is what you meant? Actually it isn't useless, as it shows how a typical filter's PSID is a function of flow volume ... and volume is what you are trying to move through the oiling system. Look at the title of the graph ... "Resistance to Flow".


One question:

Do you think the numbers indicated by the graph include the back-pressure provided by an engine or is it in free-flow on the other side of the filter?
 
Originally Posted By: Brian_Bowers
Thanks for the info guys... SuperBusa... the oil cooler adapter block replaces the oem temp sensor housing and provides you with 2 AN fittings to run lines to a cooler of your choice. You are correct that it has a parallel flow path and not all of the oil goes through the cooler.

Now... the question is does the cooler's additional tubing and flow path etc. etc. make for more of a restriction (thus higher pressure) or less (lower pressure). Too bad I sold my cooler setup and it's a PITA to install or I could test back to back.

Here's some pics of the oil cooler adapter block etc.

Stock setup... the temp sensor housing is above the oil filter
Zoil1.jpg


LPE adapter block
Oil%20cooler%20block%20flow.jpg



Since the cooler circuit as parallel with the engine circuit, that means the "total engine flow circuit resistance" became less (ie, more free flowing). It would be like putting a parallel resistor in an electrical circuit.

That also means any time the pump was not in relief mode that the full volume (non going to sump) coming out of the pump must spit between engine and cooler based on their individual flow resistance. Usually, a flow orifice of some kind is put into an oil cooler circuit so it doesn't "rob" too much oil flow from the engine when the pump is not in pressure relief.

Any time the pump is at its relief pressure, then there is ample excess volume available from the pump to feed them both.
 
That's why I say it's useless. You would have the engine behind it slamming the oil pump up against the relief way before ever achieving those relative pressures across the filter. They have to track ..but out of relief ..up to some real high flow ..the filter is like ranging between inches of W.C. and 2psid.

whenver I point this out to Soupy, he defaults on some granny rant that really makes little sense. Even a go fast type dwells more in the mundane speeds than he/she ever does at anywhere near the redline.
 
Originally Posted By: Gary Allan
Quote:
I never claim anything like that - more grasping and twisting. The only time a filter would might be in bypass with hot oil is if the pump was HV and the engine was also free flowing. Remember the Subaru thread? If you put a filter with a 8-10 psi bypass valve on an engine that called for a 23 psi bypass filter and flowed 12 gpm, then you'd probably push that 8-10 psi filter into bypass quite often.


Well, as you clearly saw, the M1 had 10psid MORE than the K&N, right. Isn't that some baseline that can only go up to the bypass valve limit? In fact, since it's 10PSID MORE than the K&N ..this was "hot oil", btw ..and only at idle ..that would mean that it had to be MORE than 10PSID across the filter, right?

Now what would it be at 10gpm ..oh, that's right, it's been in bypass right off of idle ..while the K&N has been just 10PSID behind it.


Yes, I know ... I never said otherwise. In fact, if you go back and re-read, I mentioned that these filters could very well be in bypass with this setup.
 
Originally Posted By: SuperBusa
Originally Posted By: Gary Allan
Quote:
I never claim anything like that - more grasping and twisting. The only time a filter would might be in bypass with hot oil is if the pump was HV and the engine was also free flowing. Remember the Subaru thread? If you put a filter with a 8-10 psi bypass valve on an engine that called for a 23 psi bypass filter and flowed 12 gpm, then you'd probably push that 8-10 psi filter into bypass quite often.


Well, as you clearly saw, the M1 had 10psid MORE than the K&N, right. Isn't that some baseline that can only go up to the bypass valve limit? In fact, since it's 10PSID MORE than the K&N ..this was "hot oil", btw ..and only at idle ..that would mean that it had to be MORE than 10PSID across the filter, right?

Now what would it be at 10gpm ..oh, that's right, it's been in bypass right off of idle ..while the K&N has been just 10PSID behind it.


Yes, I know ... I never said otherwise. In fact, if you go back and re-read, I mentioned that these filters could very well be in bypass with this setup.


Quote:
Originally Posted By: Gary Allan
Yet you insist that this static 10 psid difference represents some baseline for some linear progressive model. No way.


Straw grasping ... don't know where you're coming up with this conclusion.


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I'm almost done. this is where the pipe needs to be put away ..and I don't smoke.
 
Originally Posted By: OVERK1LL
Originally Posted By: SuperBusa
Originally Posted By: Gary Allan
Okay ..chop the chart off at a bypass level and amplify it for an engine that is at least 10X in relative resistance.


That graph is meant to show the restriction of the filtering media ... obviously the bypass valves in those filters is not operating. Maybe they used a filter model in each brand that didn't even have a built in bypass valve (ie, GM application).

Originally Posted By: Gary Allan
That chart is uses in process.


Say what ? ... "useless" is what you meant? Actually it isn't useless, as it shows how a typical filter's PSID is a function of flow volume ... and volume is what you are trying to move through the oiling system. Look at the title of the graph ... "Resistance to Flow".


One question:

Do you think the numbers indicated by the graph include the back-pressure provided by an engine or is it in free-flow on the other side of the filter?


It was mentioned a few times that the test was probably done without the filter on an engine (ie, no or very little "back pressure").

But, like I said before, if you could put that much flow through them at that oil viscosity, then that is the PSID you would see.
 
Originally Posted By: Gary Allan


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I'm almost done. this is where the pipe needs to be put away ..and I don't smoke.


It took you that long to resond to that one? You must be reading these posts from newest to oldest instead of oldest to newest. Who'd got the pipe now?
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Since the cooler circuit as parallel with the engine circuit, that means the "total engine flow circuit resistance" became less (ie, more free flowing). It would be like putting a parallel resistor in an electrical circuit.


Are you saying that this is dumping back to the sump? That would be real stupid. It should be divided between being cooled and not being cooled .....just like every other setup does.

I'd like to have the engineer 'splain that to me. The cooler would have the most access to flow during COLD START and would only get 'ample flow" if the user decided to use an oil heavy enough to produce a relief event.

Do you need a break here, Soupy?
 
Originally Posted By: SuperBusa
Originally Posted By: OVERK1LL
Originally Posted By: SuperBusa
Originally Posted By: Gary Allan
Okay ..chop the chart off at a bypass level and amplify it for an engine that is at least 10X in relative resistance.


That graph is meant to show the restriction of the filtering media ... obviously the bypass valves in those filters is not operating. Maybe they used a filter model in each brand that didn't even have a built in bypass valve (ie, GM application).

Originally Posted By: Gary Allan
That chart is uses in process.


Say what ? ... "useless" is what you meant? Actually it isn't useless, as it shows how a typical filter's PSID is a function of flow volume ... and volume is what you are trying to move through the oiling system. Look at the title of the graph ... "Resistance to Flow".


One question:

Do you think the numbers indicated by the graph include the back-pressure provided by an engine or is it in free-flow on the other side of the filter?


It was mentioned a few times that the test was probably done without the filter on an engine (ie, no or very little "back pressure").

But, like I said before, if you could put that much flow through them at that oil viscosity, then that is the PSID you would see.


You see that PSID because there is no resistance on the other end........

If you use a large pipe, connect it to a "big gulp" straw to represent the filter, and then measure the pressure drop across the big straw, you get what you see in this filter test, that is, how much initial restriction the "big gulp" straw provides vs the flow of the pipe connected to the straw.

Now, you put a Juice Box straw on the end of the "big gulp" straw, you essentially make the restriction of the "big gulp" straw inconsequential because the restriction provided by the Juice Box straw is so much more.

Obviously this is not a direct comparison, since oil visc plays a role as to how much fluid will pass through the media before the media itself becomes a restriction; I imagine with a VERY viscous fluid that the filter itself may present more of a resistance than the engine, and would create a large enough differential to cause the bypass to open.

Obviously the same can be said for when the media clogs. But I have to side with Gary here, as his depiction is far more "in line" with what makes sense to me as to how the system functions.
 
Originally Posted By: Gary Allan
Quote:
Since the cooler circuit as parallel with the engine circuit, that means the "total engine flow circuit resistance" became less (ie, more free flowing). It would be like putting a parallel resistor in an electrical circuit.


Are you saying that this is dumping back to the sump? That would be real stupid. It should be divided between being cooled and not being cooled .....just like every other setup does.


No ... not saying that. The cooler circuit is a parallel flow path to the engine circuit. This will make the engine "inlet to sump" flow path resistance look less (ie, more free flowing). It would be like opening up the flow path of the engine circuit.

Originally Posted By: Gary Allan
I'd like to have the engineer 'splain that to me. The cooler would have the most access to flow during COLD START and would only get 'ample flow" if the user decided to use an oil heavy enough to produce a relief event.

Do you need a break here, Soupy?


I think we both need the break. I neeed to get some real work done. The oil cooler will only flow volume based on its resistance and the supply pressure put on it (like any flow device). Typically, a flow restrictor of some kind (orifice) is put in the cooler circuit to control the flow rate through it. It is typically more restrictive than the engine circuit. If the cooler circuit was wide open and flowed like mad, then any time the pump was not in relief, or had a volume limit below what's required, the cooler could rob needed oil flow from the engine. That could be a bad thing.
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Originally Posted By: OVERK1LL
Originally Posted By: SuperBusa
Originally Posted By: OVERK1LL
Originally Posted By: SuperBusa
Originally Posted By: Gary Allan
Okay ..chop the chart off at a bypass level and amplify it for an engine that is at least 10X in relative resistance.


That graph is meant to show the restriction of the filtering media ... obviously the bypass valves in those filters is not operating. Maybe they used a filter model in each brand that didn't even have a built in bypass valve (ie, GM application).

Originally Posted By: Gary Allan
That chart is uses in process.


Say what ? ... "useless" is what you meant? Actually it isn't useless, as it shows how a typical filter's PSID is a function of flow volume ... and volume is what you are trying to move through the oiling system. Look at the title of the graph ... "Resistance to Flow".


One question:

Do you think the numbers indicated by the graph include the back-pressure provided by an engine or is it in free-flow on the other side of the filter?


It was mentioned a few times that the test was probably done without the filter on an engine (ie, no or very little "back pressure").

But, like I said before, if you could put that much flow through them at that oil viscosity, then that is the PSID you would see.


You see that PSID because there is no resistance on the other end........


Yes ... that is because "no resistance on the other end" means that large flow volumes CAN be made to go through those filters, and therefore corresponding PSIDs are seen. This was already mentioned a few time. The ONLY thing that is causing those PSIDs is the oil viscosity and flow volume. Yes, it's true that you probably will NOT see 6 gpm flow through a typical engine with 34 deg F oil.

Originally Posted By: OVERK1LL
But I have to side with Gary here, as his depiction is far more "in line" with what makes sense to me as to how the system functions.


My depiction is basically the same as yours and Gary's ... exept for a few issues. Nobody is claiming that chart represents exactly what's going on in any engine oiling system - I wish people would read more carefully and understand what's being said. There have been hundreds of posts trying to detail what's going on in an actual oiling system ... you could read for DAYS! The qualifiers have been detailed to show what this graph was really meant to say. It's just a side-by-side comparison of just the FLOW RESISTANCE factor of the media. It is meant to just give someone a relative idea of which filter is more restrictive than the others.
 
Originally Posted By: Gary Allan
That's why I say it's useless. You would have the engine behind it slamming the oil pump up against the relief way before ever achieving those relative pressures across the filter. They have to track ..but out of relief ..up to some real high flow ..the filter is like ranging between inches of W.C. and 2psid.

whenver I point this out to Soupy, he defaults on some granny rant that really makes little sense. Even a go fast type dwells more in the mundane speeds than he/she ever does at anywhere near the redline.


You have to take the graph for what it is ... don't read falsely into it.

The problem is that you don't get my rants for some reason. Either you don't read them very carefully and understand, or you don't read them at all and just skim over until something catches your eye for something you want to point out or respond to.

So here's a few questions for you to ponder.

If a filter only gets to a 2 PSID then why do some filters have bypass settings in the 20s, or even 30s psi range?

If a filter only gets to a 2 PSID, then why did the OP see a 9 PSID change between two different filter under the same flow and viscosity conditions while at idle with his HV pump? That means (and you even said it yourself) that the M1 under those hot idle conditions has a 9+ PSID. Yeah, that's hard to believe but that's what he numbers suggest.

If a filter only gets to a 2 PSID, then why do you say (and you have more than once in this thread and his sister thread in oil filter forum) that the OPs M1 filter is already near bypass and would certainly go into bypass at higher RPM?

It may be true the the majority of oil filters on the majority of vehicles on the road only see a few PSID max with hot oil flow, and may see some bypass action during very cold weather starts ... but there are certainly many cases where there can be high PSIDs due to high flow volumes/viscosity (even with hot oil) for other reasons as we have thrashed over quite a few times.
 
A loosely built engine with an HV pump would certainly allow for much higher volumes of oil through the system, potentially making the restriction point the filter.

But most applications are not this way.
 
Quote:
If a filter only gets to a 2 PSID then why do some filters have bypass settings in the 20s, or even 30s psi range?


A couple of reasons. As we've discussed many times. Something like a Porsche may have push 135lb pressures with a 100lb relief. It may spec 5w-40 oil ..and may take over 30 minutes in relief ..therefore over 30 minutes in elevated PSID. If you want to have your Porsche to see life outside of bypass, you reinforce the media and throw in a high limit bypass valve. You'll note (if you care to look) that these engine filter aren't rated for ultra high volume, though that would be another reason one might have one ..as you pointed out on the Subie.


...but I've never said a filter ONLY get to 2 PSID. I've stated that that's what you would see out of relief. Even WIX said that ..and they're as smacked arse as I am about it ...I guess.

You'll see variations on this with loading ..but not much. The normalized PSID will still be around 2PSID even with 10k on the filter (now ..let's not jump on it Soupy - we all know that all 10k runs are not created equal ..so control yourself here
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) ..a loaded filter will elongate and exacerbate the elevated PSID event. As the oil is warming, it (the filter)will reach its volume limits earlier and those volume limits will be lower and producing higher PSID. Your pushing oil through a much smaller filter - effectively. That is, @ 150F ..while producing only 2PSID at 2500-3000 ..you may produce a few more lbs of PSID @ 4500. At 210F ..you will produce less. It's really not a matter of consequence to 99 & 44/100% of the people out there 99 44/100's % of the time. It's something that occurs MOSTLY in transition from relief event to non-relief event.

Quote:
If a filter only gets to a 2 PSID, then why did the OP see a 9 PSID change between two different filter under the same flow and viscosity conditions while at idle with his HV pump? That means (and you even said it yourself) that the M1 under those hot idle conditions has a 9+ PSID. Yeah, that's hard to believe but that's what he numbers suggest.


..because as we've already agreed ..probably for the 12th time, he's obviously in relief. If he wasn't in relief ..given the location of his sender/sensor ..then no flow could be alters ..therefore no pressure should be altered either. Since his flow must be altered ..he has to be in relief. We've said this a few times here.
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This ...more than anything, should prove to you that true filter resistance is a product of the relief event. You've already conceded that without a relief event ..both filters would be transparent and equal. This should prove 100% ..bona fide ..certified ..that the relief event ..and the relief event alone can expose the true restriction of a filter ..while outside of that event ..you get a relatively low "apparent" resistance due to it's subordinate relationship to the much higher restriction of the engine.

Quote:
If a filter only gets to a 2 PSID, then why do you say (and you have more than once in this thread and his sister thread in oil filter forum) that the OPs M1 filter is already near bypass and would certainly go into bypass at higher RPM?


Well, again, we've proven that the M1 has 10PSID MORE than the K&N at idle ..unless you're conceding that the K&N has ZERO PSID ..than we're approaching the in block mechanisms limits ..are we not? Since you insist that a filter must always flow a linear pressure progression ..then the M1 would have to produce 20PSID at double the volume ..with the K&N whatever magnitude behind it ..since it may be only 1 or 2 ..or 5PSID.

Clearly, under your belief of how this works ..and in this case it may absolutely be true ..the M1 will be have that engine's bypass valve open ...pretty much all the time. He's running too high a visc at too high a volume for the confines of staying out of relief ..or at least a para-relief event (I don't believe that the pump efficiency is that low).

Quote:
It may be true the the majority of oil filters on the majority of vehicles on the road only see a few PSID max with hot oil flow,


It's true for the majority of oil filters with COLD oil. It just requires them to not be in relief. Whatever resistance you imagine in the filter is trumped many times greater by the engine. Cold oil doesn't want to flow through it without tremendously higher pressures than it does hot. If you've got a high enough relief limit and a low enough volume, you will still see your 2PSID (or less) and the rest across the engine.
 
Originally Posted By: OVERK1LL
A loosely built engine with an HV pump would certainly allow for much higher volumes of oil through the system, potentially making the restriction point the filter.

But most applications are not this way.


That's my take. For some, it's a factor. For most, there's no such thing as a free flowing or restrictive filter in any sensible view. If you're not in relief, your bypass may open when you first start up and the galleries aren't full yet to provide the back pressure to reduce the PSID to nil.

Even those setup that way (like the Turbo Subie with 15gpm max flow rate
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) do not live there 24/7/365. Unless you just robbed a bank or are about to be featured on Police Chase Scenes, I can't see you being in that upper rpm range for too long ..even on a track ..but it does give you something to think about (it did me
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)
 
Originally Posted By: Gary Allan

...but I've never said a filter ONLY get to 2 PSID. I've stated that that's what you would see out of relief. Even WIX said that ..and they're as smacked arse as I am about it ...I guess.


I was being sarcastic when I asked those questions ... and to make you think and see try to see that the filter's PSID isn't always benign and low (ie, 2~3 PSID). I didn't really want an explanation for every one of them, but since you have I'll make a few select comments back at ya.

What's in red text above is a point we don't see the same. For one thing, WIX never qualified their "2 PSID" comment. I'm assuming they would mean on the "typical" Grandpa car driven like a Grandpa. That's all fine and dandy. You have locked into your mind that this is the way it always is ... and don't consider all the conditions that could give a potentially higher filter PSID.

Give WIX an email shout and ask them what the PSID would be on a PureONE if it was ran on a Subaru engine flowing 12 gpm of how 10w-40 oil. Ask them if they believe their filter with a 12~15 psi bypass would never be in bypass mode under high RPM use. See what kind of an answer they come up with.

Again, the one thing you keep on missing is that the filter PSID increases with increased flow volume (note - constant viscosity). If the oil is hot and viscosity is constant, the filter PSID will be maximum at the point the pump goes into relief. Because at pump relief point, the pressure can not go any higher(ideally), and therefore the flow volume going down the filter/engine is the highest it can be at that instance in time.

Questions for you:
1)If the pump is not in relief, but 0.25 psi below its relief pressure of 100 psi (99.75 psi), and the flow rate at that point is 8 gpm with hot constant viscosity oil (all going thru filter/engine), then what is the flow rate going thru the filter/engine at the pump's relief pressure of 100 psi?

2)What is the flow rate going thru the filter/engine with this same oil at any RPM above where the pump went into relief pressure of 100 psi?

I do want you to answer these 2 questions though. This is one point were I don't think you are seeing things right.

With a fixed oil viscosity and a fixed flow resistance path, the flow volume is strictly a function of the pump output (ie, oil supply) pressure. Max oil flow always happens at max pressure for a given constant oil viscosity and fixed flow resistance - this is KEY. Once the pump goes into relief mode, the max oil flow going thru the filter/engine becomes a constant value - the rest (excess pump output) goes to the sump. The flow volume going thru the filter/engine can only decrease once the pump goes out of relief and the supply pressure starts to drop. See the ideal pump "Pump Output vs. RPM" graph I've shown a few times (see below) - once the pump hits pressure relief the flow output remains maximized and constant due to the excess volume going back (shunted) to the sump. For some reason, you continually believe all filter PSID magically disappears the instant the pump hits pressure relief ... I can't believe you can't realize this.

OilPumpPerformanceChart.gif


Quote:
It may be true the the majority of oil filters on the majority of vehicles on the road only see a few PSID max with hot oil flow,


It's true for the majority of oil filters with COLD oil. It just requires them to not be in relief. Whatever resistance you imagine in the filter is trumped many times greater by the engine. Cold oil doesn't want to flow through it without tremendously higher pressures than it does hot. If you've got a high enough relief limit and a low enough volume, you will still see your 2PSID (or less) and the rest across the engine. [/quote]

Wait a minute. Didn't you just say that WIX made the comment that the filter pressure drop will typically will be 2 PSID with hot oil? Now you're saying with COLD oil?

Yes, I agree that with cold oil there will be much less flow due to the high viscosity trying to be forced down a fixed flow path. But many times we have agreed that cold start / cold running (more RPM than idle) situations are most likely where the highest filter PSID events and bypass events occur on most "normal vehicles". In order for the filter to go into bypass during a cold start / cold running situation, the PSID would have to be equal or slightly greater than the bypass setting ... so we are typically talking 12~15 psi PSID needed for that to occur. Follow me here ... what gives with this 2 PSID with cold oil comment of yours?
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It seems you start contradicting yourself after we get into the "rehash" / "round-n-round" mode.
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Quote:
Whatever resistance you imagine in the filter is trumped many times greater by the engine.


Not always. It all depends on the "ratio of resistance to flow" factors between the filter and engine. As discussed earlier, if you have a small, highly resistive filter on an low resistance, free flowing, high volume pumped engine (Subaru thread), then you could certainly have a pretty large drop across the filter and not a huge drop across the engine. Yeah, it's not the "norm" ... but easily possible.
 
Originally Posted By: Gary Allan
Originally Posted By: OVERK1LL
A loosely built engine with an HV pump would certainly allow for much higher volumes of oil through the system, potentially making the restriction point the filter.

But most applications are not this way.


That's my take. For some, it's a factor. For most, there's no such thing as a free flowing or restrictive filter in any sensible view.

Even those setup that way (like the Turbo Subie with 15gpm max flow rate
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) do not live there 24/7/365. Unless you just robbed a bank or are about to be featured on Police Chase Scenes, I can't see you being in that upper rpm range for too long ..even on a track ..but it does give you something to think about (it did me
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)


Are you frickin' smoked? I've said this same thing about 3 dozen times now - I even said it in the post above this one before I responded here. Obviously you don't read my rants. I don't know why I waste my time even discussing this [censored] anymore.
 
Quote:
What's in red text above is a point we don't see the same. For one thing, WIX never qualified their "2 PSID" comment. I'm assuming they would mean on the "typical" Grandpa car driven like a Grandpa. That's all fine and dandy. You have locked into your mind that this is the way it always is ... and don't consider all the conditions that could give a potentially higher filter PSID.


So ..you're now ADMITTING THAT GARY'S RIGHT?????


Well, just when does Gary's right evaporate and Soupy's right take hold
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Just when?

Quote:
Give WIX an email shout and ask them what the PSID would be on a PureONE if it was ran on a Subaru engine flowing 12 gpm of how 10w-40 oil. Ask them if they believe their filter with a 12~15 psi bypass would never be in bypass mode under high RPM use. See what kind of an answer they come up with.


No. You can email Wix about a Purolator oil filter. If I email them I'll ask about a WIX.

Again ..you're doing that slipping back into the safety of high volume with your hot oil treatments again.
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You dispute everything I say on a totally conceptual level ..then concede to it in another post ..then argue against it in another. Back and forth. Now you're retreating into the sanctuary of ultra high volume (yes, with your beloved hot oil added in there too).

So ..essentially, you're going to jerk back and forth endlessly ..post your charts to make points that you later don't mean ..


..etc..etc..etc.

GOD LOVES YOU, SOUPY!!!!!!
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