The general consensus over the years has been that oils with wider cold/hot viscosity spreads (e.g. 0W40) typically show a higher % of shear than oils with a narrower viscosity spread (e.g. 10W30). Let's compare M1 0W40 and M1 10W30 HM. Both start with a similar hot viscosity rating, with the 0W40 being a little bit thicker (12.0 vs 12.9).
Now, let's set up a "virtual" comparison test:
- both oils are used in identical vehicles, under identical conditions
- drained and sampled at 7,000 miles
- the two vehicles have turbo DI engines and are driven hard
For the sake of simplicity, we'll say that both engines consumed 1 qt of oil during our 7,000 "virtual" test, and that there are zero variables involved which may have otherwise impacted the results.
So after both samples are analyzed, what would you expect? After shearing, would the M1 10W30 HM oil end up with a higher viscosity at 100°C compared to the M1 0W40 (such as 11.5 vs 10.0)? Or, would both oils likely be very close to the same viscosity (such as 10.5 vs 10.0)?
It would also be great to hear experiences from anyone who has done a similar comparison.
Now, let's set up a "virtual" comparison test:
- both oils are used in identical vehicles, under identical conditions
- drained and sampled at 7,000 miles
- the two vehicles have turbo DI engines and are driven hard
For the sake of simplicity, we'll say that both engines consumed 1 qt of oil during our 7,000 "virtual" test, and that there are zero variables involved which may have otherwise impacted the results.
So after both samples are analyzed, what would you expect? After shearing, would the M1 10W30 HM oil end up with a higher viscosity at 100°C compared to the M1 0W40 (such as 11.5 vs 10.0)? Or, would both oils likely be very close to the same viscosity (such as 10.5 vs 10.0)?
It would also be great to hear experiences from anyone who has done a similar comparison.