engine rev at 70miles for v6 and v8

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people often mention the more powerful v8 has a lower rev than a less powerful v6 at the same speed.

I don't understand this because I thought the rev is determined by the wheel size and transmission gear ratio, if both are the same for v6 and v8, should an v8 still have lower rev at 70miles than a v6?
 
Transmission gear ratio also has to do with available torque and the desired use of the vehicle.

Using your example, a V6 and V8 in an otherwise identical vehicle with identical gearing and tires would turn the exact same RPM at 70 mph.
 
The engine size and cylinder count is irrelevant. It's entirely a function of tire circumference, final drive ratio, and transmission gear ratio.
 
mb e550 v8 mb e350 v6
Rear Axle Ratio 2.47 3.07

Thank you all. yes it is the rear axel ratio. V8 seems to have lower axle ratio.
 
Hi,

taurus_sable - It is a factor of the "overall" (final) gear ratio. Tyre size is of course a part of that equation

Some engines have their "sweet spot" at a much different point from others in the range, and Manufactures will strive to match that with the intended application of the vehicle concerned. Torque plays a very significant part of arriving a suitable drivability point
 
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Originally Posted By: sciphi
Transmission gear ratio also has to do with available torque and the desired use of the vehicle.

Using your example, a V6 and V8 in an otherwise identical vehicle with identical gearing and tires would turn the exact same RPM at 70 mph.

I remember when there were questions about how the automatic version of the Subaru BRZ got better fuel economy than the manual version. It had to do with the final drive ratio of the automatic being considerably lower. The desire was of a manual that was less than gutless at top gear, but at the expense of fuel economy.
 
Yes it has to do with you final drive ratio, but all things being equal a v8 will be making more torque at a given rpm than a v6. Thus, a v8 will have the ability to cruise at a lower rpm than a v6.
 
Originally Posted By: taurus_sable
people often mention the more powerful v8 has a lower rev than a less powerful v6 at the same speed.

I don't understand this because I thought the rev is determined by the wheel size and transmission gear ratio, if both are the same for v6 and v8, should an v8 still have lower rev at 70miles than a v6?


You are correct: engine revolutions per minute at a certain vehicle speed are determined by tire circumference and mechanical advantage (gear ratios). The engine size or type has nothing to do with it.

That said, I think what folks MEAN if they say something like that is a vehicle with a V-8 will usually spin slower at a given speed because the vehicle manufacter can set the gear ratios so that happens. V-8s often produce more torque at lower engine speeds than engines with fewer cylinders, so to optimize fuel economy, the gear ratios can be set such that the V-8 does turn relatively slowly at a given road speed.

This isn't always the case. Our Acura's V-6, for example, spins at only 2,000 rpm at 75 mph. Our former V-8 powered Cadillac STS would be at about 2,500 rpm at the same road speed. In general, it's probably true that most vehicles with V-8s are geared "taller", but it's certainly not always true.
 
"tow package" also throws a big apples/oranges item there... you get the V8 but then they increase the gearing in the final drive... I think the v8 in my truck spins around 2300 at 70mph, whereas the van spins the v6 around 1900???
 
Originally Posted By: taurus_sable

mb e550 v8 mb e350 v6
Rear Axle Ratio 2.47 3.07

Thank you all. yes it is the rear axel ratio. V8 seems to have lower axle ratio.


MB always puts the lower axle ratio in their V8 powered cars because they have more grunt to get you going. A 6 with a 2.47 would be a dog, it needs to rev more.

MB has used a 2.47 and 3.07 for like the past 30 years in their cars, with the old 3 and 4 speeds anything in the 2 range was autobahn gearing. Those cars didn't really wake up to 100 and carried 3rd to 120. I'm actually surprised I figured with the 7spd they would do it with first gear. But I guess a 2.47 prevents a short first and allows you to waft along.
 
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My '84 Oldsmobile had a 2.14:1 rear axle ratio. It had the TH-200-C transmission, so top gear in the transmission was 1:1. That's like a 0.69:1 overdrive with a 3.10:1 axle ratio.
 
My G8 (V6 5 speed), Xj8 (V8 6 speed) and Xj12 (V12 4 speed) are all about the same at highway cruising speed.

The Solstice with the 4 banger 5 speed is a quite a bit higher, though.
 
http://auto.howstuffworks.com/differential2.htm

Note that the input pinion is a smaller gear than the ring gear; this is the last gear reduction in the car. You may have heard terms like rear axle ratio or final drive ratio. These refer to the gear ratio in the differential. If the final drive ratio is 4.10, then the ring gear has 4.10 times as many teeth as the input pinion gear. See How Gears Work for more information on gear ratios.

from what I read they equate "final drive ratio" with "rear axel ratio"

I think final drive ratio is transmission gear ratio * rear axel ratio for a rwd car, is it so?
 
Yep, I have two cars based on the same platform, one with a V8 the other a V6. They have similar overall gearing and both spin at about 3,200 RPM at 82 MPH.

You can guess which one gets worse gas mileage...
 
Final drive ratio should be top trans gear times final drive, regardless of FWD vs RWD.

Of course, at some point tire size comes into play too. Compare the tall tires on my truck to my Jetta: 629rev/mile vs 807rev/mile.
 
Originally Posted By: taurus_sable
from what I read they equate "final drive ratio" with "rear axel ratio"

I think final drive ratio is transmission gear ratio * rear axel ratio for a rwd car, is it so?


In my opinion, "final drive ratio" <> "differential ratio".

As you've said, the "final drive ratio" is usually:

"top transmission gear ratio" x "axle ratio"
 
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