I'm struggling with the concept of the assets of a company being leased a decade ago, and the company not paying any regular lease payments, and the lease was "defeased" at the time of implementation.
Company leasing the equipment operates a cash balance, invests capital into the equipment as though the equipment was theirs, but doesn't pay lease payments or anything else.
How does such a scheme work ?
How can a company get a cash windfall by selling their assets into a lease, "defease" the lease payments, and end up operating plant owned by another party...while apparently gaining financial benefit from the arrangement ?
How does the lessor party benefit by buying an asset from the lessee, then never receiving a cent of income after the initial transaction ?
Drew, anyone ?
I'm struggling.
Company leasing the equipment operates a cash balance, invests capital into the equipment as though the equipment was theirs, but doesn't pay lease payments or anything else.
How does such a scheme work ?
How can a company get a cash windfall by selling their assets into a lease, "defease" the lease payments, and end up operating plant owned by another party...while apparently gaining financial benefit from the arrangement ?
How does the lessor party benefit by buying an asset from the lessee, then never receiving a cent of income after the initial transaction ?
Drew, anyone ?
I'm struggling.