Viscosity Index

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I was reading about viscosity index and understand the concept. The BITOG charts seem to just show a linear line between the 40 C and 100 C kinematic viscosity. I have seen some oil specs that had a 10w30 that have nearly identical kinematic viscosity yet the index is significantly different. This would indicate it is just not linear.

Can someone clarify the index and the different in VI.
 
it would help if you posted a link to what you are talking about?

it might just be that the units arent fixed scale on the axis.
 
The following is correct graph:
http://www.widman.biz/English/Calculators/Graph.html

In this case the viscosity change with temperatures above 40C does appear to be almost linear but that is due to the kinematic viscosity scale from 0cSt to 3,000cSt used on the graph.
If the kinematic viscosity range was 0 to 250 you'd see that viscosity change with temperature between 40C and 100C is not linear.

While V.I. is derived from the KV40 and KV100 spec's, the graph does show the greater effect of viscosity thickening of the lower V.I. 10w30 as the temp's drop below 40C.
 
With an arbitrary dimensionless number that's calculated as a ratio of two actual data points...you get the ratio of those two points versus two other arbitrary points.
 
The BITOG chart I was looking at was this:

Putting the simple back into Viscosity.

ASTM D2270
Calculating Viscosity Index from Kinematic Viscosity at 40°C and 100°C

The viscosity index (VI) is an arbitrary measure of the variation in the kinematic viscosity of a petroleum product due to changes in temperature between 40°C and 100°C. For example, a higher viscosity index indicates that the kinematic viscosity of the lubricant will decrease very little when the temperature is increased. The VI is simply reported as a numerical value that has no units. (9)

9.jpg


I was expecting a non-linear like a post but another person said how can two data points give a curve (straight or not) which leads to my other question is how can two oils have similar end points and have diff VI unless they have non-linear relationships. I would expect depending on VI improvers they would not all react to temperature the same.

I was just comparing and for a simple ratio I could not do the math. The MC is the odd one here with a much higher VI.

John Deere Turf Gard 10w30
100 C 10.9
40 C 65.5
VI 138

Pennzoil Conventional 10w30
100 C 10.5
40 C 69.5
VI 138

Pennzoil Gold 10w30
100 C 10.53
40 C 69.7
VI 135

Motorcraft 10w30 semi-syn
100 C 10.4
40 C 69
VI 159

Of course, in looking at other threads before I posted, there is the debate on whether high VI is really meaningful measurement.

I used the VI calculator at Widman's and not all match from the published specs from the supplier's web site.
 
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The chart you've provided is a linear simplification to emphasis the net effect V.I. plays for a given viscosity set point.
The lower the viscosity of the oil the less ultimate viscosity change there is with temperature.

V.I. is a useful tool particularly when comparing oils that have the same viscosity at a given temperature.
 
I had an error in the above post. The Deere oil was the 5w30 and VI was 158.

The 10w30 is
100 C 10.3
40 C 65.9
VI 138
 
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Originally Posted By: edhackett
Will someone please explain how you can define a nonlinear relationship with only two data points?

Because oils have been tested at many points, rather than just two. For some reason, over the years, the 40 C and 100 C KV values were the regularly publicized ones. Given the data that was accumulated early on in tribology, the equation to determine VI and, more accurately, the constants involved in the equation were derived.

That's why there has been talk about how well VI is actually fitting current curves. Deriving constants from monogrades and very early style multigrades has likely left a mathematical artifact.
 
I have seen several posts including the BITOG piece that is definitely misleading in stating it defines two points.
 
Hi All

I've been reading BITOG for some time but this is my first post.

The subject of Viscosity Index like many things is very difficult to explain simply. There is really no substitute for much googling and internet reading. The Widman site is first class and all users interested in the subject should become familiar with the calculation tables and graphing options.

Confusion is created by things like the "graph" shown by MKZman which is an attempt to show what VI means but is totally misguided and leads to all sorts of misconceptions. In the first place the figures for V100 look about 15cSt for the VI154 oil and 6cSt for the VI94 oil. The real values should be 11.36 and 8.9 cSts so this drawing has been exaggerated for effect. However the worst thing about this drawing is that the V100 and the V40 points are then joined up with straight lines and marked with the VI. This gives the impression that VI is some straight line on a graph with linear scales. If you try to use this "graph" to derive the viscosity at say 60C you would arrive a value of about 50cSt, extrapolating back to 20C or even 0C would give figures around 100cSt. These figures would be absolutely wrong.

On the basis that a picture is worth a thousand words I have used the Widman site to produce the real graph for the three oils from 40C to 100C.



The following graph shows the viscosity down to 0C and I have thrown in a theoretical VI220 oil to show the benefit of high VI oil.



Summing up some of the points by previous posters:
VI is a just measure of multigradediness (if there was such a word). It is not not a line on a graph. It cannot be used to calculate anything further, it's just an index, higher is thought to be better.
The viscosity/temp curve is definitely not a straight line, it's a curve and as pointed out above you cannot define a curve with only two points. However with two points and a generic curve for petroleum products you can.

I hope this helps a bit and not muddied the waters even further.
 
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