Recently I came across some old threads by a poster who was doing 30k+ mile intervals on his S2000 and consistently (trend) ending up with ~10ppm iron using a bypass filter. That seemed unusually low and I can't help but see that filtration efficiency (at filtering, not flow) significantly skews UOA results. So to get a realistic picture of wear for a given oil versus another, you'd have to use the same filter. This recent thread is a great example. I'm grateful that he spent the money to have particle count analyzed and shared the results, and it shows how big a difference the filter can make. Even if one used minimum three samples, one oil can be shown in significantly better/worse light through UOA's just because of the filter. Or if one constantly changes filters, there may not be any real significance in a trend.
For absolute wear (same type of filter used continuously), could an engine could be consistently wearing significantly at the same level from the very first sample at say 80k miles and stay there (the evidence would be hidden in the filter)? Or would would wear accelerate if there was a problem and show up in the trend?
Maybe this seems obvious but I rarely, if ever, have seen this discussed. Just thought it's worth noting on our board with many users that constantly chasing the next best deal on oils and filters. This is a science, but it seems like many don't approach it that way.
For absolute wear (same type of filter used continuously), could an engine could be consistently wearing significantly at the same level from the very first sample at say 80k miles and stay there (the evidence would be hidden in the filter)? Or would would wear accelerate if there was a problem and show up in the trend?
Maybe this seems obvious but I rarely, if ever, have seen this discussed. Just thought it's worth noting on our board with many users that constantly chasing the next best deal on oils and filters. This is a science, but it seems like many don't approach it that way.
Last edited: