- Aug 2, 2002
- Florida to Caribbean & Wisconsin
quote:Ok, I'm no chemical engineer (hell, I barely graduated high school ), so please bare with me. If there is 150ppm of moly in a 1 pint (450 ml) bottle of anything, that amounts to .00015% or .0675 ml of the total package. Now if I mix 5 quarts (4500 ml) of oil with this 1 pt bottle, the total will now be 11 pints or 4950 ml, yet the same amount of moly is still present that was in the original 1 pint bottle. If I took a sample of this mix, I think it should now contain approximatly 13.63 ppm (150 ppm divided by the 11 pints) of moly since the same amount of moly is now dispersed over 11 pints vs. the original 1 pint. If I pour that same 1 pint bottle of #132 into a 55 gal drum of oil, mix and sample, I'd be lucky to even see a trace amount of moly, right?
Originally posted by MolaKule: The answer is no. Let's assume there is no moly in the virgin oil of say 4.8 L. If I place 500 mL of a carrier oil that contains 150 ppm of Moly, then the resulting oil should have its Moly content "raised" by 150 ppm. In other words, the concentration of Moly in the 500 mL should disperse in the host oil to increase its content of Moly by 150 ppm.