Stupid preferred question.
Two prefered's all other things being equal - both callable. The current rate is the same - market driven.
I would wish to buy the one furthest below par - correct? That way if interest rates fall, it has the furthest it can run before it hits par. I would have to assume on callable stock buyers would not want to pay too much above par. I would not.
Or there is a benefit to owning one with a higher "original" yield.
For example. Two from same bank. Both pay about 5.89% currently.
One had original coupon at 4.75% and trades at $20.58
THe other had original coupon at 4.55% and trades at $19.50.
I assume I want the second one. I am guessing it makes very little difference, however is there a convexity to these I do not understand?