Honda Paper (2009) on F1 engine development

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Yes, I see the "oil demand" graph, and you are correct that on that particular graph the demand drops off more in the higher RPM range. No real information given if that graph takes into account bearing temperature rise or not. If bearings are found to have a significant temperature rise with their design, then the flow could be increased more in the higher RPM range - which means the flow demand curve would not knee over as much as what's shown in the graph above. But in any case, yes ... the bearing's "demand" for oil flow drops off as RPM increases per the bearing "Sommerfeld Number".

The only benefit there might be to safely cutting supply volume to the bearings is to save 1% or less in oil pump input drive power as mentioned in the paper. Obviously "over feeding" the bearings isn't going to hurt, and like in the example of the Honda V8 F1 engine, is probably required for that engine to survive. As you saw in the F1 engine write-up, the total max flow is about 20 GPM (75L/min), and the flow vs RPM curve is almost a straight line. Also, the twin rotor PD pump system they use basically feeds the oiling system with a near linear output vs RPM. So the last thing on those engine designer's mind is cutting back the oil flow in the high RPM range of the engine - and for good reasons. Surely not to save 0.3 MPG.





Originally Posted By: Shannow
... remember too (again, as they keep dropping off your radar for whatever reason) the big ends too...they are clearly NOT pressure fed per your assertion).


So if you are referring to the "big ends" as the big ends of the piston rods, then they certainly are pressure fed oil. There are holes drilled in the crankshaft to bring oil under pressure right into the supply groove of the big end rod bearings. The "small ends" (ie, the piston wrist pin bearing) is not pressure fed, but instead either supplied oil by squirters or simply from the splashed oil getting up underneath the piston.

Originally Posted By: Shannow
Here's the general design that they follow to achieve the more volume at low RPM, less at high.

Basically they are oversized, and pressure controlled to a constant output pressure.


If you read that SAE paper again about the variable flow vane pump you showed above (Fig 4), they are saying the variable output pump controls the output volume of the pump, and doesn't even use a pressure relief of any kind. It is not controlling the supply pressure to a constant value - it's only controlling the output volume based on the demand they think the engine needs over its RPM range (ie, the flow demand graph). The oil pressure the engine sees at any given RPM is the result of the pump only controlling the output volume. If the pump output volume decreases, so does the supply pressure (with all other factors held constant).

If the supply pressure was actually held constant at all times like you think these variable flow pumps work, then the flow volume through the oiling system would be highly influenced by the oil viscosity as it changed temperature, and you would have much less flow at a constant supply pressure with thick cold oil than with hot thin oil. Not really a good way to supply oil to the engine. The variable flow pumps are still true PD pumps, they just vary the output volume independent of engine RPM.
 
Originally Posted By: ZeeOSix

So if you are referring to the "big ends" as the big ends of the piston rods, then they certainly are pressure fed oil. There are holes drilled in the crankshaft to bring oil under pressure right into the supply groove of the big end rod bearings.


Big ends are typically starved for a part of a revolution, so while they are supplied oil under pressure...As I've pointed out multiple times, the pressure is needed to GET THE OIL TO THE REMOTE PARTs, primarily the big end.

They are NOT pressure fed, or even supplied through their entire rotation in most typical engines, so are not "pressure fed" in the way you have been explaining that bearings must be.

If THEY cans survive without being overpressurised, or even receiving oil for a complete revolution, then your premise that the underlying design of automotive bearings is that they MUST be overpressurised is false....

Mains are a WAY easier task, and the major reason for overpressurising THEM is to get the 0il to the big end.
 
Originally Posted By: Shannow
Big ends are typically starved for a part of a revolution, so while they are supplied oil under pressure...As I've pointed out multiple times, the pressure is needed to GET THE OIL TO THE REMOTE PARTs, primarily the big end.

They are NOT pressure fed, or even supplied through their entire rotation in most typical engines, so are not "pressure fed" in the way you have been explaining that bearings must be.

If THEY cans survive without being overpressurised, or even receiving oil for a complete revolution, then your premise that the underlying design of automotive bearings is that they MUST be overpressurised is false....


I'm afraid you're reading a bit too much between the lines. I've never claimed that engines absolutely all need to have highly pressurized oiling systems to survive. A lot of it depends on the exact bearing design and their exact use conditions - those engines were also very low HP and low RPM capable compared to today's engines. Back in the 40s and 50s, auto engines survived OK with mainly splash type oiling systems. What I've basically claimed is that modern engines employ pressurized oiling systems to help improve the oiling of moving parts, and to ensure better reliability and longer life because of that.

And you might want to look farther into big end bearing oil supply designs.
https://www.hemmings.com/magazine/hcc/2010/08/Engine-Lubrication/3638821.html

"Oil grooving in a bearing is always a necessary evil. Some engines with a higher power output may employ a part-circumferential oil supply groove to allow for more bearing surface to endure the cylinder pressure load. In these applications, the lower half of the bearing is made grooveless, which, in turn, may require the main journals to be cross-drilled. Thus, this drilled passage is always connected to the grooved upper half of the bearing, ensuring an uninterrupted supply of oil to the big-end bearing with each full turn of the crankshaft."

Watch starting at time 3:30.
https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=43kEygGVZPA

If there is a dedicated oil passage to feed the big end rod bearing, and the oil in that passage is pressurized (which it is), then the big end bearings are pressure fed a supply of oil. The pressure entering the big end bearing is not at ATM pressure - it's above ATM pressure, so that technically makes it a pressure fed bearing. And that's true regardless if they are only fed during half the rotation cycle or not. But if you do some research you will see that many engines have a continuous pressurized supply of oil at the big end rod bearing as mentioned in the lubrication article I linked above.
 
"MAY" require crossdrilling...

the vast majority of engines have a plain lower shell and grooved upper, and therefore zero (or less) supply pressure for a significant part of a revolution.

Your posit, and the pressure fed equations that you presented are that the bearings are provided with excess flow capacity by the application of increased pressure to force lubricant through the bearings...and the links that you use to support it start with "if the temperatures are too high"...again, not supporting that "pressure fed" is the natural design point.

My position is that the pump needs to supply the volume that the bearings need to replace the natural side-leakage, and the pressure is necessary to get the oil to the remote point, and ensure adequate supply, not to be "jammed" through the bearing.

The Big ends are definitely not, in the vast majority of engines "pressure fed" in the interpretation of the concept that YOU initially introduced, in that pressure is not used to force lubricant through the bearings to control temperature. Your own links mention the word "supply" when it comes to big ends.

You have changed your definition mid stream.

You are coming around it seems.
 
Pressure%20at%20big%20end%20feed%20hole.jpg


Here's the pressure trend at the bearing feed hole for a big end.

The "I" type feed is the type that single drilling that virtually every single automotive engine on the planet is equipped with, and clearly the pressure isn't "pressurised" all the time...the negative bit is a combination of the centrifugal effect and the draw from the operational bearing...if there's any dissolved gasses in the oil (which there always is), this will cause foaming in the drilling, and further disrupt actual flow when the feed is re-established.

The "V" drilling is a type of crossdrilling, as described in your link as "may" be required...again, how many crossdrilled engines are there out there ?
 
Originally Posted By: Shannow
"MAY" require crossdrilling...

the vast majority of engines have a plain lower shell and grooved upper, and therefore zero (or less) supply pressure for a significant part of a revolution.

Your posit, and the pressure fed equations that you presented are that the bearings are provided with excess flow capacity by the application of increased pressure to force lubricant through the bearings...and the links that you use to support it start with "if the temperatures are too high"...again, not supporting that "pressure fed" is the natural design point.

My position is that the pump needs to supply the volume that the bearings need to replace the natural side-leakage, and the pressure is necessary to get the oil to the remote point, and ensure adequate supply, not to be "jammed" through the bearing.

The Big ends are definitely not, in the vast majority of engines "pressure fed" in the interpretation of the concept that YOU initially introduced, in that pressure is not used to force lubricant through the bearings to control temperature. Your own links mention the word "supply" when it comes to big ends.


Your splitting hairs on the big end bearing discussion. If there is positive oil pressure supplying the bearing then it's a pressure fed bearing by definition, regardless if it's a continuous oil supply under pressure or not, as your graph shows in your last post.

I've never said that pressure fed bearing are the "natural design point". I did say there are reasons for pressure fed oiling systems up and beyond what a non-pressure fed system will support.

I believe your position is wrong that the bearings simply need an oil supply at ATM in the gallerias to "draw/suck" off of (ie, the bearing "natural design point") to be totally fine in all applications and use conditions. I was under the impression that you accepted the fact that some applications need more than ATM pressure to ensure proper oiling, but seems you are still stuck on the premise that every bearing in the world is just fine without being pressure fed.

On some engines it's true that the journal bearings can be fine without being pressure fed, but like I've said before those are low HP/low RPM type of engines. Why do you think modern oiling systems are pressure fed and bearings are being force fed more oil than they would "naturally" flow with oil supplied at just ATM pressure? If there were no real reasons for the system to be pressurized then you would still see simplified oiling system designs from the 30s and 40s still being used. There are virtually millions upon millions of pressurized oiling systems "jamming" oil through bearings. Regardless if some bearings really "need" added forced oil feeding or not - as "jamming" extra oil flow through them still does more good than harm.

Do you really still believe every engine on the road would survive or last as long if they were not being pressure fed? Do you think that F1 Honda engine would survive just fine if it wasn't pressure fed at 130 PSI, but instead all the engine components and journal bearings were simply lubricated at zero pressure & oil splashing? And yes, temperature control of the bearings in some engines certainly is one important design factor that must be considered, and part of the reason pressure fed bearings exist.

Originally Posted By: Shannow
You have changed your definition mid stream.

You are coming around it seems.


No, I really haven't changed my definition mid stream, more like re-explaining in more detail with words that you've finally started to understand ... I think. You do seem to be going in circles and grasping for straws more and more though.
 
Originally Posted By: ZeeOSix

Do you really still believe every engine on the road would survive or last as long if they were not being pressure fed? Do you think that F1 Honda engine would survive just fine if it wasn't pressure fed at 130 PSI, but instead all the engine components and journal bearings were simply lubricated at zero pressure & oil splashing? And yes, temperature control of the bearings in some engines certainly is one important design factor that must be considered, and part of the reason pressure fed bearings exist.


Strawman...

I have always maintained that the function of an oil system is to provide the bearings with sufficient supply to make up for the side leakage at the operating point.

I HAVE stated that I've seen large turbine bearings draw a negative pressure on the supply line (after the flow control orifice), as the pressure profile around a journal is negative in places and can and will draw in oil...the system of course has a supply pump to supply sufficient quantities of oil TO the bearing....not to jam it through.

Show me once where I have claimed (your strawman remember) that a bearing can draw oil from the sump to itself...when I say your strawman, this is what you've claimed that I've said multiple times now.

YOUR premise is that oil is forced through them...
* you stated in the other thread that the bearings provided a "resistance to flow"...and that this MAY change with RPM
* That the role of the PD pump is to force oil through the bearings to keep them cool.
* you introduced the Hagen–Poiseuille equations of continuity as evidence for this...LOL.

YOUR definition of pressure fed was that the oil was forced through the bearings, while it now appears much closer to my "supply oil in sufficient quantities"...which hasn't changed since I've been on BITOG.
 
Originally Posted By: Shannow
I have always maintained that the function of an oil system is to provide the bearings with sufficient supply to make up for the side leakage at the operating point.


You must be losing it and forgot everything that has been discussed in these two threads. You're right back where you were in the beginning.

If there was a reservoir at just ATM pressure above the bearing (like in sketch below) then the bearing would "draw/suck" oil out of it to make up for the any side leakage.

journal_bearing.jpg


A pressurized oiling system does more than just make up for the bearing side leakage. When the bearing is pressurized then of course there is more oil flowing through the bearing than it would naturally draw. Are you saying you don't believe that's really happening? If you believe that pressurized bearings don't flow any additional oil due to the feed pressure then you are just plain wrong.

Originally Posted By: Shannow
I HAVE stated that I've seen large turbine bearings draw a negative pressure on the supply line (after the flow control orifice), as the pressure profile around a journal is negative in places and can and will draw in oil...the system of course has a supply pump to supply sufficient quantities of oil TO the bearing....not to jam it through.


And I'll bet that particular bearing was just ATM pressure fed. Of course there is a negative region in the bearing due to the rotational dynamics, and of course it will "draw/suck" in oil from the supply line at ATM pressure because there is a slight pressure difference between the supply at ATM and the slight negative pressure (vacuum) inside the bearing. No magic or surpises there.

If that bearing was pressure fed at a significant level, that mini vacuum inside the bearing would go away and the whole area inside the bearing would be above ATM pressure, and side leakage would increase accordingly due to the supply pressure force feeding the bearing more oil than it could "naturally" flow.

Again ... the simplest concept in fluid flow is that fluid volume will flow from a high pressure to a low pressure. So yes, if a bearing is supplied at pressure above ATM then the bearing will flow more oil.

Originally Posted By: Shannow
Show me once where I have claimed (your strawman remember) that a bearing can draw oil from the sump to itself...when I say your strawman, this is what you've claimed that I've said multiple times now.


Guess you didn't get the sarcasm at the time to make a point of the whole "sucking" phenomena. Of course there is not enough negative pressure inside the bearing to suck oil from the sump. Go back and re-read that exchange ... it was sarcasm to make a point.

Originally Posted By: Shannow

YOUR premise is that oil is forced through them...
* you stated in the other thread that the bearings provided a "resistance to flow"...and that this MAY change with RPM
* That the role of the PD pump is to force oil through the bearings to keep them cool.
* you introduced the Hagen–Poiseuille equations of continuity as evidence for this...LOL.

YOUR definition of pressure fed was that the oil was forced through the bearings, while it now appears much closer to my "supply oil in sufficient quantities"...which hasn't changed since I've been on BITOG.


You really don't think that adding oil pressure to the supply side of the bearing doesn't increase flow through it? And yes, I'm sure some engine designers use high volume PD pumps to force feed the bearings massively to help keep them cooler. You think a 10,000 HP top fuel dragster would survive on ATM feed bearings instead of the 160 PSI of oil supply pressure and high volume PD oil pump they use?

Any restriction in the oiling system causes "resistance to flow". Where do you think the oil pressure seen on the supply galleries in an engine comes from? It's due to the flow restriction of all the tight clearance journal bearings. Why do you think oil pressure will decrease while at the same engine RPM when the journal bearings wear out and have much larger clearances? It's because the larger bearing clearance has less "resistance to flow", and the same flow volume through them results in less indicated oil pressure. It's really simple fluids stuff.
 
Originally Posted By: ZeeOSix
And I'll bet that particular bearing was just ATM pressure fed. Of course there is a negative region in the bearing due to the rotational dynamics, and of course it will "draw/suck" in oil from the supply line at ATM pressure because there is a slight pressure difference between the supply at ATM and the slight negative pressure (vacuum) inside the bearing. No magic or surpises there.


And you bet a few posts ago in this thread that variable volume oil pumps provided lower flows per RPM at lower RPM and then increased flow at high RPM...and were wrong, as that's where uneducated guesses get you.

Supply pressure for the turbine bearing was 425kPa FYI, and it pulled a vacuum (some whole psi) between the flow control orifice and the bearing suction...actually had to reduce the size of the orifice to get the So number back into the stable range for oil whirl.

But you ARE betting like 007 in Casino Royale.
 
Originally Posted By: Shannow

And you bet a few posts ago in this thread that variable volume oil pumps provided lower flows per RPM at lower RPM and then increased flow at high RPM...and were wrong, as that's where uneducated guesses get you.


Strawman attempt to divert focus. You found one graph that showed it rolled off faster than I though, yet there was no real detail on the condition that graph was representing.

So what about these posts where you were in agreement that pressurizing journal bearing increased their flow rate.

You: Post Link

Me: Post Link

You: Post Link

Originally Posted By: Shannow
Supply pressure for the turbine bearing was 425kPa FYI, and it pulled a vacuum (some whole psi) between the flow control orifice and the bearing suction...actually had to reduce the size of the orifice to get the So number back into the stable range for oil whirl.


If there was an orifice between the supply of 425 kPa (which is 617 PSI), then the actual pressure at the bearing was not even close to the supply pressure. Take the orifice out all together and put the full 617 PSI on the bearing and see how it flows.
 
Originally Posted By: ZeeOSix

If there was an orifice between the supply of 425 kPa (which is 617 PSI), then the actual pressure at the bearing was not even close to the supply pressure. Take the orifice out all together and put the full 617 PSI on the bearing and see how it flows.


Learn how to do math...it's 61.7 psi. even transposition error, I can't believe that you didn't have an instinctive "4 and a bit bar CAN'T be 600+psi"

Again...the role of an oil supply system is to SUPPLY oil in SUFFICIENT QUANTITIES for replacement of that lost due to leakage of the components.

It is NOT to jam oil through them, except obviously pressure density elements like squirters, and hydraulics etc.

So the oil supply is 425kPa (which isn't 617psi, unless there's a secret agent trick I'm missing), and there is a flow control orifice strainer...to ensure that each and every one gets what it needs, and no more. That particular bearing the turbine wouldn't run with the strainer removed...going from a 27.4 to 25.8mm orifice took 100um off the vibration.
 
Yes, my error on the pressure conversion - fat fingered in an extra digit into the conversion tool ... big deal.

Of course the orifice is there to control the supply volume to the bearing, and is basically acting like a gravity feed oil source - not a true pressure fed bearing situation. Like I said before, if it was truly pressure fed there wouldn't be any volume inside the bearing that would be below ATM pressure.

If you could measure the side leakage of that bearing with the flow control orifice vs removing the orifice all together, you would see an increase in side leakage flow due to the added supply pressure.

Apparently you once believed the bearing design equations discussed in earlier showing the effect of the oil supply pressure on the bearing flow rate, but you seem to be back in the belief that pressure fed bearings will flow the same as gravity fed bearings, no matter what the supply pressure is at. You're still stuck in that erroneous thinking. Just like in your mind swimming and wading are the same thing because they both happen in water ... but they are not the same thing by definition.

Originally Posted By: Shannow
Again...the role of an oil supply system is to SUPPLY oil in SUFFICIENT QUANTITIES for replacement of that lost due to leakage of the components.


Not entirely true in a pressure fed bearing system. If that was true, then oiling systems would never be pressurized at all and only supply oil at ATM pressure = 0 gauge pressure.
 
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