Originally Posted By: Gary Allan
Quote:
How can the PSID across the filter change if the GPM and viscosity remains constant?
When the pressure behind the filter increases to (nearly) match the applied pressure. This would all, naturally, be in "transition" from startup to engine envelopment.
Nothing else changes. The volume is the same ..the visc ..whatever.
But even during this transition, the GPM going through the filter is the same and remains constant, so that means the PSID will remain constant. PSID across any flow element does not depend on back pressure. An engine has 0 PSI back pressure on it ... yet, it has a given PSID with X GPM flow. This is the fact that you are always mis-understanding.
The same hold true for just the filter ... it will develop the same PSID with 0 PSI back pressure as it will with 100 PSI back pressure.
Originally Posted By: Gary Allan
Once the engines enveloped ..the PSID evaporates to not worth mentioning. The filter then becomes just (ALMOST) another piece of pipe that's not an issue of merit for MOST applications up to the full output capacity of the engine ..if one could really live there on MOST cars in MOST environments.
Actually, once the engine is enveloped, the GPM flow is STILL the same GPM (if the engine speed is constant) and the oil pump supply pressure has now risen quickly from just a few PSI while the flow was just going through the filter to a much higher PSI (say 50 PSI) it takes to force that same exact GPM through the filter + engine.
Towards the end of that old
Oil Filter Test thread of Bob’s way back when [
http://www.bobistheoilguy.com/forums/ubbthreads.php?ubb=showflat&Number=315299&page=1 ], you seem to understand it correctly just as I’ve explained.
Originally Posted By: Gary Allan
Quote:
The flow rate through the filter will determine its PSID.
Not in this case. Again, in an open pipe that doesn't transition to some extreme choke. Sure. This would be because the down stream pressure development would be low to none. The ONLY thing developing pressure would be the filter. Between it and the pump. No engine to develop its "back pressure".
So tell me what the oil pump pressure would be in the case with JUST the filter (sketch #1) vs. the case with the filter + engine (sketch #2)?
Originally Posted By: Gary Allan
Quote:
The oil pressure at an engine's inlet (where the oil pressure sensor is located) is dependent on how much GPM is going through it - agree?
Agreed. The filter "stacks on top of" that developed pressure. The engine is incredibly more restrictive than the filter, hence it produced the MEGA LION'S SHARE of the TOTAL PRESSURE of the circuit.
True, the filter adds the relatively small amount of PSID it produces. So if there is only a filter in the system (ie, your sketch #1), how much oil pump pressure do you think would be needed to push X GPM through only the filter? And then once the oil hits the engine, how much oil pump pressure do you think would be needed to push that same GPM through the filter + engine? Give me some relative numbers to help explain what you think is going on with the pump pressure between sketch #1 and sketch #2.
Originally Posted By: Gary Allan
Quote:
Is that oil pump putting out the same GPM in both cases? If not, why?
They're the same. One is at startup with an empty engine (not fully enveloped) ..and the other is a few seconds later ..after the engine is fully enveloped.
True, they are the same. This again means that if the same GPM and same viscosity oil is going through the same filter in both sketches then the PSID across the filter will be the same. The filter will build the same PSID regardless if it has 0 PSI of back pressure, 100 PSI of back pressure or 300 PSI of back pressure.