im a little confused by this comment, but sounds like your the guy to straighten me out. correct me if im wrong but for a given pump at a given rpm, a less viscous oil will have a greater volume of flow than a more viscous oil. assuming the bypass is not hit could we not say 10w30 flows more volume than 10w40? thats what school told me and Dr. whoever wrote the oil university stuff. i was under the impression i was after the thinnest oil possible that still met my factory requirements under my operating temps.
For every turn of the gears in a positive displacement pump, a given amount of oil is displaced. It doesn't matter if that oil is SAE50 or 0w-20.
What IS relevant is the role of the bypass, which is why I specifically mentioned it. Your oil system post-pump is essentially a fixed orifice. To move more volume through that orifice requires more pressure. The more pressure the greater the load on the pump of course, because that pump is displacing the same amount of oil every revolution. So in comes the role of the bypass to dump oil that, at a given pressure ceiling, cannot be forced into the rest of the engine.
Now, you can raise that pressure ceiling to force the engine into seeing greater oil volume at a greater pressure, but that, depending on application, can be wholly counter-productive.
Now, with a thinner lubricant, more oil can be pushed through the orifice before engaging the bypass. So for a given pressure (resistance to flow) you have more oil volume being pushed through the system.
Think of it this way (these are theoretical numbers):
at 3,000RPM your oil pump can move 3.2GPM of oil.
With 5w-40 this generates 60psi
with 5w-30 this generates 50psi
The engine is seeing the same volume of oil. But it requires more PRESSURE to move that volume of oil with the heavier grade.
What this means is that once you approach the limit of the bypass, a thinner lubricant will allow more oil volume to go through the engine before bypassing than a thicker oil.
However, if you aren't hitting the bypass, and you have a minimum oil pressure spec provided by the manufacturer, your goal should be to be above that spec by a safe margin.
Does that make sense?
it just seems odd that it calls for that much pressure so early... it worries me i'll hit the bypass shortly after (not sure what psi that is though). what it sounds like is im going to need a 50wt oil to get back to that spec for my operating temps. im almost positive 40wt did not get 60psi at 3k when hot (240F)
It's not odd at all. Every oil system is different and has different requirements. That's why we have the FSM to give us these values

The Ford Windsor factory bypass is set at ~65psi. When cold, many of the engines would hit that on fast idle, LOL! Ford's minimum pressure spec was something like 10 or 15psi hot at idle. And something like 30psi by 3,000RPM. Much lower than yours. But with a pressure ceiling of 65psi, it makes sense, right?
My engines always were in the 30's hot at idle with an xW-30 in the sump. I was at ~38psi hot at idle on M1 0w-40 and on the bypass by 5K IIRC.